Came across this,
http://www.wigantoday.net/news/local-news/allotments-under-threat-1-5401904
Surely once it become an allotment it become statutory. The statutes concern the need to supply allotment.
No, don't think so.
As I understand it, if you have or acquire a piece of land and the purpose is not for allotments, you can use it for allotments, but they are non statutory, so it is quite simple to stop them being allotments and return the land to its original planned use.
If you acquire land specifically for allotments, then they are statutory, and they then have the extra protection.
So a council can buy land for a building development, and can use it as an allotment in the mean while, but you would have to leave once the development starts.
I think the statutory status of allotments, is to stop land being bought cheaply for use as allotments, and then being sold for development for a big profit.
As a lot of allotments would be on land already owned by a council, renting it out as an allotment would not make it a statutory allotment, so I think there are a lot more non statutory allotments than what most people think.
If anybody can show where I am wrong, please to, as the allotment site I am on is not considered as a statutory allotment, and about 1/3 is not used because it is earmarked for housing.
fyi ...
http://www.publications.parliament.uk/pa/cm199798/cmselect/cmenvtra/560/56010.htm (http://www.publications.parliament.uk/pa/cm199798/cmselect/cmenvtra/560/56010.htm)
and this ...
http://www.allotmentssouthwest.org.uk/index.php?page=sale-of-statutory (http://www.allotmentssouthwest.org.uk/index.php?page=sale-of-statutory)
Many thanks for this.